Pikmin preguntado en Science & MathematicsMathematics · hace 5 meses

How tall in meters, ft, etc., were the three angels Moses saw in the Last Heaven?

I know its the wrong category to ask this, but since its a mathematical question, I figured I could ask here since it involves numbers. Lets think hypothetically for a moment if you want to... you(Atheists/Satanics/Agnostics) can move on to the next question if you wish, nobody is forcing you people to answer this... just two simple questions, thats it...

So back to my question...

Just how tall are these three Angels in feet, meters, yards, etc.? 

The phrase that stated Af's, and Hemah's height:

 "In the last heaven Moses saw two angels, each five hundred parasangs in height..."

The phrase that stated Samael's height:

"There was another angel in the seventh heaven, different in appearance from all the others, and of frightful mien. His height was so great, it would have taken 500 years to cover a distance equal to it..."

Here is the Link pertaining to their height...

https://books.google.com.mx/books?id=XJGZDwAAQBAJ&...

Thank you for your time...

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2 respuestas

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  • Pope
    Lv 7
    hace 5 meses
    Respuesta preferida

    Using Wikipedia as my source, I find that the parasang is an ancient unit, and not very well defined. It appears to be close to 5.5 km, or at least on that order of magnitude.

    500 parasangs

    = 5(5.5 km)

    = 2750 km

    = 2,750,000 m

    For comparison, the peak of Mount Everest is less than 9,000 m about sea level.

    The angel in that second description has such a height that it would take 500 years to cover the same distance. That magnitude is highly ambiguous, perhaps purposely so. The point is that it is so tall that we could never properly grasp it.

    I am, let us say, of an age, but I believe I could cover the 500 parasangs across level ground in a few months, certainly less than a year. Multiply the first angel's height by 500, and call that a minimum.

    Notice that the number 500 comes up twice in this one passage. That is probably because it is a nice round number. I take that as a clue that they were never intended as actual measurements. It is merely a hand-waving way of expressing the order of magnitude. I have noted how often the number 40 appears in Biblical passages. I am no linguist, but my guess is that in those ancient cultures 40 was commonly used as a rough unit, much as I might use a dozen.

  • I think you're better off asking in the religion section... (I read the question though)

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